Superb ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Materials: ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Donate You the Most Popular Training Dumps - DumpsTorrent

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q21-Q26):

NEW QUESTION # 21
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?

A. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment
B. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment
C. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments
D. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment

Answer: C

Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.

NEW QUESTION # 22
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What key output of the 'deployment model development and improvement' process can be used to trigger implementation of a newly updated deployment model?

A. Change request
B. Updated knowledge management articles
C. Deployment review reports
D. Lessons learned

Answer: A

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the deployment model development and improvement process involves creating or refining models to enhance deployment effectiveness. Implementing a newly updated deployment model typically requires formal authorization and coordination, which is achieved through a change request (Option B). A change request initiates the process to assess, approve, and execute the model update in a controlled manner, ensuring alignment with organizational governance and other practices like change enablement.
Option A (Lessons learned): Incorrect, as lessons learned are an output for improving future processes, not a trigger for implementing a new model.
Option B (Change request): Correct, as a change request is the formal mechanism to propose and implement a new or updated deployment model, per ITIL 4's integration with change enablement.
Option C (Updated knowledge management articles): Incorrect, as knowledge articles support documentation and training but do not trigger implementation.
Option D (Deployment review reports): Incorrect, as review reports provide insights or feedback, not the authorization needed to implement a model.

NEW QUESTION # 23
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
An IT service provider is using continuous integration and is considering the introduction of continuous delivery. Which is a benefit of this proposed change for the service provider?

A. Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation
B. Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent
C. Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code
D. Code is tested iteratively and frequently

Answer: B

Explanation:
Continuous delivery (CD) in ITIL 4 extends continuous integration (CI) by ensuring that every validated change is ready for deployment to production, enabling smaller and more frequent releases. The key benefit for users is that they experience changes which are smaller and more frequent (Option D), reducing risk, improving feedback cycles, and delivering value faster.
Option A (Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code): Incorrect, as while CD may reduce some issues through automation, this is not its primary benefit, and CI already includes frequent testing to catch issues early.
Option B (Code is tested iteratively and frequently): Incorrect, as iterative and frequent testing is a feature of continuous integration, not a new benefit introduced by continuous delivery.
Option C (Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation): Incorrect, as scripting and automation are part of both CI and CD pipelines, not a unique benefit of introducing CD.
Option D (Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent): Correct, as CD enables rapid, incremental releases to production, directly benefiting users with faster and less disruptive updates.

NEW QUESTION # 24
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An IT service manager is analyzing a value stream that is used to deploy new and changed services. The manager has interviewed many staff and has identified all the workflow steps. The manager is now evaluating the workflow steps so that they can plan improvements. Which activity should the manager carry out as part of this evaluation?

A. Identify wasteful steps that could be eliminated
B. Collect data about what happens in each workflow step
C. Establish what value is created in each workflow step
D. Define an ideal series of workflow steps for the future

Answer: C

Explanation:
ITIL 4's value stream analysis focuses on understanding the contribution of each step to overall value delivery to identify improvement opportunities. When evaluating workflow steps, the manager should establish what value is created in each step (Option D), as this provides the foundation for assessing whether steps are necessary, effective, or aligned with organizational goals.
Option A (Collect data about what happens in each workflow step): Incorrect, as data collection is part of identifying steps (already done, per the question), not evaluating their value.
Option B (Identify wasteful steps that could be eliminated): Incorrect, as identifying waste is a subsequent action that depends on first understanding the value of each step.
Option C (Define an ideal series of workflow steps for the future): Incorrect, as defining future steps is part of planning improvements, not evaluating current steps.
Option D (Establish what value is created in each workflow step): Correct, as evaluating value per step is critical to understanding the stream's effectiveness and prioritizing improvements, per ITIL 4.

NEW QUESTION # 25
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What should be done if a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested for technical reasons?

A. Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model
B. Automate the activities of the new model before it is used
C. Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly
D. Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found

Answer: A

Explanation:
When a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested due to technical limitations, ITIL 4 emphasizes a risk-based approach to deployment management to ensure stability and minimize disruption. Option C, closely monitoring the first few uses of the new model, aligns with ITIL 4's guidance to proceed cautiously when full testing is not feasible. This approach allows the organization to deploy the model in a controlled environment, observe its performance, and quickly address any issues, thereby reducing risk while gathering real-world data.
Option A (Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found): While testing is ideal, delaying deployment indefinitely until a testing method is found may not be practical, especially if business needs require timely deployment. This option is overly restrictive and does not balance risk with operational demands.
Option B (Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly): Conducting test deployments assumes testing is possible, which contradicts the question's premise that testing cannot be done for technical reasons. This makes the option invalid.
Option C (Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model): This is the most pragmatic approach, as it allows deployment with safeguards like monitoring to mitigate risks, aligning with ITIL's focus on value delivery and risk management.
Option D (Automate the activities of the new model before it is used): Automating an untested model could amplify risks, as automation without validation may propagate errors across environments.

NEW QUESTION # 26
......

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Superb ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Materials: ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Donate You the Most Popular Training Dumps - DumpsTorrent

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q21-Q26):

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